After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation: A) In the injured limb only. B) Distal to the injury. C) Proximal to the injury. D) At the site of the fracture.
Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the: A) Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle. B) Femur, knee, tibia and ankle. C) Femur and ankle. D) Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by: A) Tight bandages and a heating pad. B) Rest, immobilization, application of cold, and elevation. C) Rigid splints and bandages D) Compression, elevation, and application of heat.
The longest, strongest bone in the body is the: A) Humerus. B) Fibula. C) Tibia. D) Femur.
If the patient has an open fracture responders should: A) Attempt to push bones back into the wound. B) Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends. C) Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding. D) Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site.
A traction splint could be used for which of the following injuries: A) A fractured pelvis. B) An injured kneejoint. C) A dislocated hip. D) A mid-shaft femur fracture.
A concussion is best described as: A) Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord. B) Tearing of brain tissue. C) Pooling of blood in the brain. D) Temporary loss of brain function
You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of A) Soft spots in the infant’s skull. B) Infant’s pupils react too differently than adults. C) Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully. D) The startle reflex.
When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped? A) Chest B) Pelvis C) Legs D) Head
Contusions are: A) Usually controlled with direct pressure B) Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain. C) Usually associated with scalp lacerations D) Almost always seen in children.
Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury: A) Increase in pulse rate. B) Constant respiratory rate. C) Increase in blood pressure. D) A decrease in blood pressure.
The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are: A) Eye, verbal and motor responses. B) Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement. C) Pulse rate, respiration rate eye response. D) Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement.
“Raccoon eyes” indicates: A) Possible eye injury B) Possible fracture of the jaw C) Possible scalp laceration D) Possible head injury
You are called to the scene of a motorcycle crash. The rider is dazed and walking around. You should: A) Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly. B) Not worry about the spinal injury because the person is mobile. C) Advise the person to lie down in case of fainting. D) Determine the chief complaint and provide first aid forit.
When managing a possible spinal injury: A) The cervical immobilization device is applied by the police. B) Transport the patient in the position of greatest comfort. C) Apply a cervical immobilization device before assessing the patient. D) Responders must provide initial stabilization by supporting the head and ensuring Neutral alignment
Dealing with pelvic injuries you must always consider the possibility of: A) Ruptured bladder. B) Ruptured spleen. C) Spinal injuries. D) Rib fractures.
To properly measure a cervical collar, you: A) Measure the distance from the ear lobe to the shoulder. B) Measure the distance from the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe. C) Measure the distance from the cheekbone to the shoulder blade. D) Measure the distance from the trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw
A helmet must be removed from a patient: A) If the rare no airway or breathing problems. B) If the patient will be immobilized to a long spinal immobilization on the device. C) When the helmet has a face mask that interferes with the responder’s ability to assist with Ventilation D) It is a full-face helmet.
Contact dermatitis occurs when: A) The skin comes in contact with a poisonous substance. B) A poison enters the eye of a contact lens wearer. C) Hot gases are in haled. D) A poison is injected under the skin.
Carbon monoxide: A) May result from fires or automobile exhaust. B) Has a very distinct odor C) Is not life-threatening. D) Requires the administration of low concentration O2.
A child has swallowed an unknown poisonous substance. You should: A) Dilute the poison with several glasses of cool water. B) Call your local Poison Control Centre and follow directions. C) Give a solution of mild liquidize detergent and water. D) Use activated charcoal.
Muscles are attached to the bones by: A) Ligaments. B) Meninges. C) Cartilage. D) Tendons.
The appendix is located in which quadrant of the abdomen: A) Lower right. B) Upper right. C) Upper left. D) Lower left.
The external layer of the skin is called:: A) Cutaneous tissue. B) Dermis. C) Adipose tissue. D) Epidermis.
The white exterior portion of the eye is called the: A) Pupil. B) Sclera. C) Cornea. D) Iris.
The pulse point located in the upper portion of the thigh is called the: A) Popliteal. B) Femoral. C) Brachial. D) Temporal.
A skeletal injury to the lower back could result from direct trauma to the: A) Cervical vertebrae. B) Thoracic vertebrae. C) Lumbar vertebrae. D) Coccygeal vertebrae.
Which one of the following is a function of the skin? A) Regulation of oxygen levels. B) Production of proteins. C) Regulation of body temperature. D) Removal of carbon dioxide.
Urine is expelled from the body through the: A) Kidneys. B) Bladder. C) Ureters. D) Urethra.
Insulin is produced in the: A) Spleen. B) Liver. C) Pancreas. D) Gallbladder.
When communicating with patients: A) Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact. B) Stay as close to the patient as possible. C) Use medical terminology to enhance credibility. D) Hide facts if the situation is serious.
In cases of behavioral disorders, the responder should: A) Always use restraints. B) Give the patient a choice in the treatment C) Play along with auditory or visual hallucinations. D) Force the patient to make decisions.
The best way to prevent a Critical Incident Stress situation from becoming worse is: A) Ignore it. B) Be familiar with the signs and symptoms. C) Ensure early use of proper medication. D) Force the responder to talk about the situation.
Remove a contact lenses only if: A) There is a chemical burn to the eye. B) The eyeball is injured. C) Transport time is short. D) The casualty is wearing hard lenses.
You discover a particle embedded in the casualty’s cornea. You should: A) Remove the particle with a moist corner of a facial tissue or clean cloth. B) Flush the eye with water for 10 minutes. C) Use a splinter forceps to remove the particle. D) Cover the eye and transport the casualty to medical help.
Signs and symptoms of intense light burns to the eyes include: A) Bleeding from the conjunctiva. B) Gritty feeling in the eyes. C) Lacerations to the globe. D) Bleeding from the conjunctiva.
Eye injuries that include lacerations: A) Should be covered with clean, moist dressings. B) I indicate possible skull fracture. C) Usually involve a great deal of bleeding. D) Require moderate pressure on the eye to control bleeding.
Irrigate eyes with: A) Diluted vinegar. B) Saline solution. C) An appropriate chemical antidote. D) Sodium bicarbonate.
Signs and symptoms of acute abdomen include: A) Excessive hunger orthirst. B) Hypertension and brachycardia. C) Distension with rebound tenderness. D) Fever with deep, shallow breathing.
Signs that a hernia is serious include: A) Pain and tenderness at site. B) Pale, ashensk in color at site. C) Hernia can be pushed back into body. D) Hernia is above the diaphragm